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Old 11-25-2007, 05:47 PM   #13
queequeger
Hypercharismatic Telepathical Knight
 
Join Date: Aug 2007
Location: The armpit of the Universe... Augusta, GA
Posts: 365
I suppose the reason I'm stressing this is that I think it is an important question that remains largely unaddressed (at least in US courts). I have no problem with allowing for absolution of things like underage drinking, maybe because I think it's a stupid crime to punish in the first place.

But here's the big question (rephrased again): We find it perfectly acceptable to shoot someone for, say, breaking into our house. In some cases, even in the burglar is in broad daylight and is shown to have no weapon and therefore poses you no threat, you can shoot him simply for being on your property. This cannot be defended as self preservation, because you KNOW the person isn't a threat. So we take that burglar that was shot and give him his legal punishment. What if you raped him instead? Would his crime be absolved and yours be punished?

I guess what it boils down to is; is it ok to absolve rape victims based on a "time served" kind of thing? They've already suffered enough, we can't punish them on top of all that?

I still haven't figured it out.
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