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Old 10-04-2003, 02:01 PM   #37
elSicomoro
Person who doesn't update the user title
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Posts: 12,486
For starters, Ep, I think "reverse discrimination" is a nonsense construct. There's just "discrimination," period.

I don't disagree with you in that there are instances of the current minorities discriminating against whites. However, I would argue that there are far fewer incidents of this, simply b/c minorities already know what it's like to face racial discrimination by whites. This is probably why you don't hear of many situations involving discrimination against whites, if any. Though I do have one example for you: The black guy that went on a shooting rampage in Pittsburgh 3 years ago.

But if anything, I think you will find more examples of a) discrimination within one's own race and b) Discrimination between the various minorities (e.g. Koreans vs. blacks in LA in the '90s) than against whites.

Quote:
Yet various ethnic groups have *exactly* this sort of thing going on all the time, and it is thought to be a great thing. Why the distinction, then, when they are essentially the same event with only the recognized group being changed?
Now hold up, Ep. "Ethnic" and "racial" are two different constructs. Please clarify this for me, and I'll respond further.
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