Quote:
Originally posted by Beestie
SteveDallas wrote: I oppose the large corporate contributions because it reeks of bribery. When a company donates THAT kind of money, there is an under-the-table agreement or, at the very least, the appearance of one. Either way, its a perversion of the political process.
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So do you object to the fact that it's a
corporate donation, or that it's a
large donation? If we agree for the sake of argument that a donation of $10,000,000 from MegaConglomerate to the Republican Party is perverse, would a $10,000,000 donation from a private citizen be equally perverse? It seems to me that if case a) results in undue influence being exerted on behalf of the donor, then so does case b). The only difference is whether a single person or a corporation (a "person" in some legal senses, as I understand) benefits.
I'm not trying to be an asshole (which doesn't mean I'm not
), but I've thought about these things a good bit and haven't come up with any good answers.