Do You Own a Gun?

[duck_duck]

Originally Posted by Radar

No, your rights are not defined by the law of a nation you happen to live in. The ways in which a nation will protect your rights or violate them are in the laws. Some nations violate rights more than others.

When the elected officials (servants) of a country try to infringe upon the rights of their masters, they are violating the bounds of their legitimate authority and violating the trust put in them.

It is not only the right, but also the duty of the people to revolt when this happens.
Yes, it did apply to all men when it was written. It didn't apply to blacks (who were considered livestock) and didn't apply to women. The civil war was not over slavery.

That statement contradicts itself because blacks are men. And women are their equals.
I know the civil war was not about slavery, it was about state's right but it took a conflict like that to get rid of slavery and see black folks as people too. But it took another 100 years before they were seen as equals. So that initial statement of the declaration of independence didn't really apply to all men.

Originally Posted by Radar

Yes, the Constitution can change with time, but it was created to place limits on government, not our rights. This is why the 16th and 18th amendments were violations...that and the 16th was fraudulently ratified.

Then why are they in effect?

Originally Posted by Radar

Less than 1/1000th of our military would ever fire on Americans even during a revolt and if they were ordered to do so, and those that didn't would defend us from those who did.

That is good to know.

[Radar]

Originally Posted by duck_duck

That statement contradicts itself because blacks are men. And women are their equals.
I know the civil war was not about slavery, it was about state's right but it took a conflict like that to get rid of slavery and see black folks as people too. But it took another 100 years before they were seen as equals. So that initial statement of the declaration of independence didn't really apply to all men.

At that time, it applied to all who were considered men. And later it also applied to women, and to blacks who were then considered men. Whether or not women or blacks were considered equals at the time it was written is completely irrelevant and does nothing whatsoever to invalidate what they said.

Originally Posted by duck_duck

Then why are they in effect?

They aren't. The 18th was a violation of our rights and of the limits on the powers of Congress, but even still it was repealed. And the 16th also became null and void the moment it was fraudulently ratified. Several IRS agents asked the government to show them the law that compels Americans to pay income taxes. Rather than show them, they were given resignation papers because there is no such law.

Originally Posted by duck_duck

That is good to know.

I agree.

[duck_duck]

Originally Posted by Radar

At that time, it applied to all who were considered men. And later it also applied to women, and to blacks who were then considered men. Whether or not women or blacks were considered equals at the time it was written is completely irrelevant and does nothing whatsoever to invalidate what they said.

How can you say that? People are people and because the views at the time does not make specific groups any less as people. So the "all men are created equal" idea was a farce at the time. All men were created equal as long as they were white males is what it meant. If it wasn't, then there would have never been any need for later laws to include others.

Originally Posted by Radar

They aren't. The 18th was a violation of our rights and of the limits on the powers of Congress, but even still it was repealed. And the 16th also became null and void the moment it was fraudulently ratified. Several IRS agents asked the government to show them the law that compels Americans to pay income taxes. Rather than show them, they were given resignation papers because there is no such law.

The 18th amendment was repealed, my mistake. But the 16th was not and your income taxes are still in place despite IRS agents inquiry on the law.

[Radar]

Originally Posted by duck_duck

How can you say that? People are people and because the views at the time does not make specific groups any less as people. So the "all men are created equal" idea was a farce at the time. All men were created equal as long as they were white males is what it meant. If it wasn't, then there would have never been any need for later laws to include others.

It wasn't a farce and yes the views at the time did matter. Stop acting like historical context is irrelevant. Making white men free was a first step. They were not free before this. At the time the declaration was made, it was a huge leap forward because it said power came from the people, and not god or a king.

Originally Posted by duck_duck

The 18th amendment was repealed, my mistake. But the 16th was not and your income taxes are still in place despite IRS agents inquiry on the law.

According to the first Supreme Court, and several subsequent supreme court cases, all laws which contradict the U.S. Constitution are automatically null and void. The 16th was not ratified by the correct number of states to have it ratified, and even if it did have the correct number of states, it violates other parts of the Constitution.

When you make an amendment to the Constitution it either adds to it, or removes another part of it. It may not contradict another part.

The Supreme Court has also ruled that income taxes are for corporations and not for individuals.